Technical torah-reading question
Apr. 25th, 2010 09:22 am![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png){kind=small}
rhuYesterday I noticed that Lev 17:5 contained a passage using zarka-zarka-segol (ignoring the fourth-level te'amim of munach and mercha). I was really surprised by this, since I always thought a zarka had to be followed directly by a segol (again disregarding munach and mercha). I would have expected the first zarka to be a revia instead. I'm wondering if this sequence is unique and if anyone has written about it.
There's nothing in the commentaries in the Simanim. Furthermore, Jacobson (2002) devotes a chapter to "Zarka - Level Three Under Segol" in which he parses out the zarka as the "final terminator" before a segol and revia as the "first terminator", which is consistent with what I would expect. He doesn't discuss Lev 17:5 as an exception.
ETA: Prof. Jacobson points out that in his chapter on Segol (p. 204) he covers this construction, which happens 26 times. It's a multi-level split under segol; the first subdivision is the revia earlier in the pasuk, and then the second-level subdivision is a zarka which is itself subdivided by a second zarka.
There's nothing in the commentaries in the Simanim. Furthermore, Jacobson (2002) devotes a chapter to "Zarka - Level Three Under Segol" in which he parses out the zarka as the "final terminator" before a segol and revia as the "first terminator", which is consistent with what I would expect. He doesn't discuss Lev 17:5 as an exception.
ETA: Prof. Jacobson points out that in his chapter on Segol (p. 204) he covers this construction, which happens 26 times. It's a multi-level split under segol; the first subdivision is the revia earlier in the pasuk, and then the second-level subdivision is a zarka which is itself subdivided by a second zarka.